Mastering the 2024 CG Board Class 12 English Exam with Expert Answers!"

Hello, students and exam enthusiasts!

Are you ready to dive into the 2024 Chhattisgarh Board Class 12 English question paper? This paper is a fantastic opportunity to test your reading, writing, and literature skills while preparing for your exams. With a mix of reading comprehension, creative writing, and literature-based questions, it’s designed to challenge your understanding and expression. Don’t worry—I’ve got you covered with a thorough analysis, suggested answers, and tips to ace similar papers. Let’s break it down section by section and uncover the secrets to scoring high. Ready? Let’s get started!

Analysis of the Question Paper

Total Marks: 80

Time: 3 hours

Total Questions: 33

Total Pages: 15

Sections:

Section A (Reading Comprehension): Tests understanding of unseen passages through multiple-choice, short-answer, and vocabulary questions, along with note-making and summarization.

Section B (Writing Skills): Assesses creative and formal writing through letters, notices, posters, sentence transformations, and articles.

Section C (Literature): Evaluates knowledge of prescribed texts (Flamingo and Vistas) through extracts, short-answer questions, and long-answer character sketches or thematic justifications.

Section A: Reading Comprehension
Passage 1: Sleep and Its Importance

The CG Board Class 12 English question paper (Code: L-242020/820-B) for 2024 is structured to evaluate students across three key areas: Reading Comprehension (Section A), Writing Skills (Section B), and Literature Textbook (Section C). Here’s a quick overview:

The paper balances objective and subjective questions, requiring both analytical thinking and creative expression. It’s designed to test not just rote learning but also critical thinking, language proficiency, and interpretive skills.

This section includes two unseen passages with questions to test comprehension, vocabulary, and summarization skills. Below, I’ve reproduced the passages and provided suggested answers for each question.

Passage Text:

Sleep is essential for a person's health and well-being. Yet millions of people do not get enough sleep and many suffer from lack of sleep. Most of those with these problems go undiagnosed and untreated. In addition, more than 40 percent of adults experience daytime sleepiness severe enough to interfere with their daily activities at least a few days each month with 20 percent reporting problems of sleepiness a few days a week or more. Furthermore, 69 percent of children experience one or more sleep problems a few nights or more during a week.

If a sleep deprived person doesn't sleep after the initial signs, the person may then start to experience apathy, slowed speech and flattened emotional responses, impaired memory and an inability to be novel or multitask. As a person gets to the point of falling asleep, he or she will fall into microsleeps (5-10 seconds) that causes lapses in attention, nod off while doing an activity like driving or reading and then finally experience hallucinations.

Everyone's individual sleep needs vary. In general, most healthy adults are built for 16 hours of wakefulness and need and an average of 8 hours of sleep a night. However, some individuals are able to function without sleepiness or drowsiness after as little as 6 hours of sleep. Others can't perform at their peak unless they have slept 10 hours. And contrary the common myth, the need for sleep doesn't decline with age but the ability to sleep for 6 to 8 hours at one time may be reduced.

Stress is the number one cause of short-term sleeping difficulties, according to sleep experts. Common triggers include school or job-related pressures, a family or marriage problem and a serious illness or death in the family. Usually, the sleep problem disappears when the stressful situation passes. However, if short term sleep problems such as insomnia aren't managed properly from the beginning, they can persist long after the original stress has passed.

Drinking alcohol or beverages containing caffeine in the afternoon or evening, exercising close to bedtime, following an irregular morning and nighttime schedule and working or doing other mentally intense activities right before or after getting into bed can disrupt sleep.

If you are among the 20 percent of employees in the United States who are shift workers, sleep may be particularly elusive. Shift work forces you to try to sleep when activities around you and your own biological rhythms - signal you to be awake. One study shows that shift workers are two or five times more likely than employees with regular, daytime hours to fall asleep on the job. Groups that are at particular risk of sleep deprivation include night shift workers, physicians and truck drivers.

Travelling also disrupts sleep, especially jet lag and travelling across several time zones. This can "upset" your biological or "circadian" rhythms. Environmental factors such as a room that's too hot or cold, too noisy or too brightly lit can be a barrier to sound sleep. And interruptions from children or other family members can also disrupt sleep. Other influences to pay attention to are the comfort and size of your bed and the habits of your sleep partner. If you have to lie beside someone who has different sleep preferences, snores, can't fall asleep, or has other sleep difficulties, it often becomes your problem too.

Having a 24/7 lifestyle can also interrupt regular sleep patterns: the global economy that includes round the clock industries working to beat the competition; widespread use of nonstop automated systems to communicate and an increase in shift work makes for sleeping at regular times difficult.

A number of physical problems can interfere with your ability to fall or stay asleep. For example, arthritis and other conditions that cause pain, backache, or discomfort can make it difficult to sleep well. It is a good idea to talk to a physician or mental health provider about any sleeping problem that recurs or persists for longer than a few weeks.

Questions and Suggested Answers:

Note [A]: Choose the appropriate option (1x5=5)

Q1. Our biological rhythm can be affected by-
(a) travelling
(b) 24/7 lifestyle
(c) physical problems
(d) shift work
Answer: (a) travelling
Explanation: Paragraph 7 explicitly states that travelling, especially jet lag and crossing time zones, can "upset" biological or circadian rhythms.

Q2. One can tackle sleep deprivation by-
(a) Changing one's lifestyle
(b) Understanding one's sleep pattern
(c) Seeking professional help
(d) Opting for medication
Answer: (c) Seeking professional help
Explanation: Paragraph 9 recommends consulting a physician or mental health provider for persistent sleep problems, making this the most appropriate choice.

Q3. Sleep deprivation can be caused by all these factors except-
(a) exercising close to bedtime
(b) drinking alcohol
(c) interruption from children
(d) reading books
Answer: (d) reading books
Explanation: Paragraphs 5 and 7 mention exercising close to bedtime, drinking alcohol, and interruptions from children as factors disrupting sleep. Reading books is not listed as a cause.

Q4. The antonym of the word 'peak' (para 3) is-
(a) Lowest
(b) Maximum
(c) Greatest
(d) Supreme
Answer: (a) Lowest
Explanation: In paragraph 3, 'peak' refers to the highest level of performance. The antonym is 'lowest,' indicating the opposite level.

Q5. A sleep deprived person may not experience-
(a) Flattened emotional responses
(b) Slowed speech
(c) Ability to be novel or multitask
(d) Impaired memory
Answer: (c) Ability to be novel or multitask
Explanation: Paragraph 2 states that a sleep-deprived person experiences an inability to be novel or multitask, making this the correct choice as something they do not experience.

Note [B]: Answer the following questions briefly (1x5=5)

Q6. How can sleep pattern for some differ from certain others?
Answer: Sleep patterns differ because individual sleep needs vary; some function well with 6 hours, while others require 10 hours to perform at their best (Para 3).

Q7. What is the common myth about sleep?
Answer: The common myth is that the need for sleep declines with age, but in reality, the ability to sleep for 6-8 hours at a stretch may reduce (Para 3).

Q8. How does micro sleep affect a person?
Answer: Microsleeps (5-10 seconds) cause lapses in attention, leading to nodding off during activities like driving or reading, and may result in hallucinations (Para 2).

Q9. What is ideal sleep pattern for most of us?
Answer: Most healthy adults need an average of 8 hours of sleep per night after 16 hours of wakefulness (Para 3).

Q10. Which factors attribute to sleep deprivation in most cases?
Answer: Stress, drinking alcohol or caffeine, exercising close to bedtime, irregular schedules, shift work, travelling, and environmental factors like noise or discomfort contribute to sleep deprivation (Para 4-7).

Note [C]: Pick out the words from the passage which have similar meaning (1x2=2)

Q11. Legend (para 3)
Answer: Myth
Explanation: In paragraph 3, "common myth" refers to a widely believed but false story, synonymous with "legend."

Q12. Universal (para 8)
Answer: Widespread
Explanation: In paragraph 8, "widespread use" implies something common across many areas, similar to "universal."

Passage 2: Dietary Fibres

Passage Text:

The term dietary fibres refers collectively to indigestible carbohydrates present in plant foods. The importance of these dietary fibres came into the picture when it was observed that the people having diet rich in these fibres, had low incidence of coronary heart disease, irritable bowel syndrome, dental caries and gall stones. The foodstuffs rich in these dietary fibres are cereals and grains, legumes, fruits with seeds, citrus fruits, carrots, cabbage, green vegetables, apples, melons, peaches, pears, etc. These dietary fibres are not digested by the enzymes of the stomach and the small intestine whereas most of the other carbohydrates like starch and sugar are digested and absorbed. The dietary fibres have the property of holding water and because of it, these get swollen and behave like a sponge as these pass through the gastrointestinal tract. The fibres add bulk to the diet and increase transit time in the gut. Some of these fibres may undergo fermentation in the colon. In recent years it has been considered essential to have some amount of fibres in the diet. Their beneficial effects help in preventing coronary heart disease, and decreasing cholesterol levels. The fibres like gums and pectin are reported to decrease postprandial (after meals) glucose level in blood. These types of dietary fibres are recommended for the management of certain types of diabetes. Recent studies have shown that the fenugreek (Methi) seeds, which contain 40 percent gum are effective in decreasing blood glucose and cholesterol levels as compared to other gum containing vegetables. Some dietary fibres increase transit time and decrease the time of release of ingested food in colon. The diet having less fibres is associated with colon cancer and the dietary fibres may play a role in decreasing the risk of it. The dietary fibres hold water so that stools are soft, bulky and readily eliminated. Therefore, high fibre intake prevents constipation. The fibres increase mobility of the small intestine and the colon and by decreasing the transit time there is less time for exposure of the mucosa to harmful toxic substances. Therefore, there is less desire to eat and the energy intake can be maintained within the range of requirement. This phenomenon helps in keeping a check on obesity. The dietary fibres may have some adverse effects on nutrition by binding some trace metals like calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, zinc and others and therefore preventing their proper absorption. This may pose a possibility of nutritional deficiency especially when diet contain marginal levels of mineral elements. This may become an important constraints on increasing dietary fibres. It is suggested that an intake of 40 grams dietary fibres per day is desirable.

Questions and Suggested Answers:

Q13. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, make notes on it in points only using headings and sub-headings. Use recognizable abbreviations wherever necessary.
Answer:
Title: Importance of Dietary Fibres

Definition & Source
- Dietary fibres: Indigestible carbs in plant foods.
- Sources: Cereals, grains, legumes, seed fruits, citrus fruits, carrots, cabbage, green veggies, apples, melons, peaches, pears.
Properties
- Not digested by stomach/small intestine enzymes.
- Hold water, swell, act like sponge in gastrointestinal tract.
- Add bulk, incr. transit time in gut.
- Some fibres ferment in colon.
Health Benefits
- Prev. coronary heart disease, decr. cholesterol.
- Fibres (gums, pectin): Decr. postprandial glucose, aid diabetes mgmt.
- Fenugreek seeds (40% gum): Effective in decr. blood glucose/cholesterol.
- Decr. colon cancer risk, prev. constipation (soft, bulky stools).
- Incr. gut mobility, decr. exposure to toxins, control obesity.
Adverse Effects
- Bind trace metals (Ca, Mg, P, Zn), may cause nutritional deficiency.
- Issue if diet has marginal mineral levels.
Recommended Intake
- 40g dietary fibres/day desirable.

Q14. Write a summary of the above passage and give a suitable title.
Answer:
Title: The Role of Dietary Fibres in Health

Summary: Dietary fibres, indigestible carbohydrates found in plant foods like cereals, legumes, and fruits, are vital for health. They reduce the risk of coronary heart disease, cholesterol levels, and colon cancer while aiding diabetes management and preventing constipation. Fibres add bulk to the diet, enhance gut mobility, and control obesity by reducing toxin exposure and appetite. However, they may bind essential minerals, potentially causing deficiencies if mineral intake is low. A daily intake of 40 grams is recommended for optimal benefits.

Section B: Writing Skills

This section tests students’ ability to express ideas clearly through formal and creative writing tasks.

Q15. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner about insanitary conditions or congratulate a friend on JEE success.
Suggested Answer (Insanitary Conditions):
Adarsh Nagar, Bilaspur
April 23, 2025

To
The Municipal Commissioner,
Municipal Corporation, Bilaspur

Subject: Addressing Insanitary Conditions in Adarsh Nagar

Dear Sir/Madam,

I am a resident of Adarsh Nagar, Bilaspur, and I am writing to express concern over the deteriorating sanitary conditions in our locality. Overflowing garbage bins, clogged drains, and stray animals pose health risks, especially during monsoons. The lack of regular waste collection and poor drainage maintenance has led to mosquito breeding and foul odors.

I urge you to implement regular garbage collection, clear drainage systems, and conduct awareness campaigns on waste segregation. Deploying more sanitation workers and installing additional dustbins could also help. Your prompt action will ensure a cleaner, healthier environment for residents.

Thank you for your attention.

Yours sincerely,
[Your Name]

Q16. Write a notice for a school annual function or design a poster on the value of reading books.
Suggested Answer (Notice):
AVM Higher Secondary School
NOTICE
Date: April 23, 2025

Annual Function 2025

Dear Students,

Our school is organizing its Annual Function on May 10, 2025, at 5:00 PM in the school auditorium. The event will feature cultural performances, speeches, and awards. Students interested in participating in dance, drama, music, or anchoring are requested to register with the undersigned by April 30, 2025. Let’s make this event memorable!

Smita/Sunil
Secretary, Cultural Committee

Q17. Do as directed (any ten):
Suggested Answers:
(i) Please lend me your pen.
Passive: Let your pen be lent to me.

(ii) The stranger said to me, "Have you lost your way?"
Narration: The stranger asked me if I had lost my way.

(iii) I offered him a chair.
Passive: A chair was offered to him by me.

(iv) (a) I bought a car yesterday. (b) It is blue in colour.
Complex: The car which I bought yesterday is blue in colour.

(v) Make haste. You will be late.
Combined: Make haste, or you will be late.

(vi) The sum is too difficult for me to solve.
Complex: The sum is so difficult that I cannot solve it.

(vii) No sooner did I take a dose of medicine than I started feeling better.
As soon as: As soon as I took a dose of medicine, I started feeling better.

(viii) Unless you respect all, they will not respect you.
If: If you do not respect all, they will not respect you.

(ix) He saves money so that he may buy a car.
Nonfinite: He saves money to buy a car.

(x) The teacher said to the students, "Don't waste your time in idle gossip."
Narration: The teacher advised the students not to waste their time in idle gossip.

(xi) My sister, who is a teacher, can speak five languages.
Relative Clause: who is a teacher (Non-defining).

(xii) Inspite of running very fast, Ajay lost the race.
Although: Although Ajay ran very fast, he lost the race.

Q18. Write an article on one of the given topics.
Suggested Answer (Clean India Green India):
Clean India Green India

India, a land of diverse cultures and natural beauty, faces challenges like pollution and deforestation. The Clean India Green India initiative aims to create a cleaner, greener nation. Cleanliness begins with proper waste management—segregating waste, recycling, and reducing single-use plastics. Local governments must ensure regular garbage collection and clean public spaces.

A green India requires afforestation and sustainable practices. Planting trees, conserving water, and using renewable energy can combat climate change. Citizens must participate by adopting eco-friendly habits like using public transport and saving electricity. Schools should educate children about environmental conservation.

Government schemes like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan and tree-planting drives are steps in the right direction, but collective effort is key. Let’s pledge to keep India clean and green for future generations.

Word Count: ~150 words

Section C: Literature Textbook

This section tests knowledge of Flamingo and Vistas through extracts, short-answer questions, and long-answer questions.

Extract 1: The Tiger King (Flamingo)

Extract Text:

From that day onwards it was celebration time for all the tigers inhabiting Pratibandhpuram. The State banned tiger hunting by anyone except the Maharaja. A proclamation was issued to the effect that if anyone dared to fling so much as a stone at a tiger, all his wealth and property, would be confiscated. The Maharaja vowed he would attend all other matters only after killing the hundred tigers. Initially the king seemed well set to realise his ambition. Not that he faced no dangers. There were times when the bullet missed its mark, the tiger leapt upon him and he fought the beast with his bare hands. Each time it was the Maharaja who won. At another time he was in danger of losing his throne. A high-ranking British officer visited Pratibandhapuram. He was very fond of hunting tigers and fonder of being photographed with the tigers he had shot. As usual, he wished to hunt tigers in Pratibandhapuram, but the Maharaja was firm in his resolve. He refused permission. "I can organise any other hunt, you may go on a boar hunt. You may conduct a mouse hunt. We are ready for a mosquito hunt. But tiger hunt! That's impossible!" The British officer's secretary sent word to the Maharaja through the dewan that the durai himself did not have to kill the tiger. The Maharaja could do the actual killing. What was important to the durai was a photograph of himself holding the gun and standing over the tiger's carcass. But the Maharaja would not agree even to this proposal.

Questions and Suggested Answers:

Q19. In Pratibandhapuram the time of celebration was for
(a) Rats
(b) Mosquitoes
(c) Tigers
(d) Boars
Answer: (c) Tigers
Explanation: The extract states it was "celebration time for all the tigers" due to the ban on tiger hunting.

Q20. During the state ban, if anyone dared to fling a stone at a tiger, he would be
(a) Killed
(b) Imprisoned
(c) Thrashed
(d) Confiscated of wealth and property
Answer: (d) Confiscated of wealth and property
Explanation: The proclamation warned that anyone harming a tiger would have their wealth and property confiscated.

Q21. What was the ambition of the Maharaja?
(a) killing the hundred tigers
(b) protecting people from dangers
(c) abolishing all the bad practices
(d) trapping the rats
Answer: (a) killing the hundred tigers
Explanation: The Maharaja vowed to kill a hundred tigers before attending to other matters.

Q22. Who visited Pratibandhapuram?
(a) An American officer
(b) A high-ranking British officer
(c) A Russian officer
(d) An officer of the Indian Army
Answer: (b) A high-ranking British officer
Explanation: The extract mentions a high-ranking British officer visiting Pratibandhapuram.

Extract 2: My Mother at Sixty-Six (Flamingo)

Extract Text:

I looked again at her, wan, pale as a late winter's moon and felt that old familiar ache, my childhood's fear, but all I said was, see you soon, Amma, all I did was smile and smile and smile.

Questions and Suggested Answers:

Q23. Mother’s face has been compared to-
(a) full moon brightness
(b) late winter's moon and its paleness
(c) young children
(d) young tree
Answer: (b) late winter's moon and its paleness
Explanation: The poet compares her mother’s wan, pale face to a "late winter’s moon."

Q24. Which word in the stanza means "to suffer from a continuous dull pain"?
(a) Wan
(b) Familiar
(c) Pale
(d) Ache
Answer: (d) Ache
Explanation: "Ache" refers to a continuous dull pain, as felt by the poet.

Q25. Why did the poet say, "see you soon, Amma"?
(a) Bidding farewell
(b) Being hopeful to meet Mother again
(c) To comfort her mother
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Being hopeful to meet Mother again
Explanation: The phrase reflects the poet’s hope to see her mother again, masking her fear of loss.

Q26. Why did the poet smile again and again?
(a) Pretending to smile
(b) Trying to hide her fear from mother
(c) To distract her mother
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation: The poet smiles repeatedly to pretend optimism and hide her fear of her mother’s mortality.

Short-Answer Questions (2x3=6)

Q27. How were Gandhiji and Shukla treated by Rajendra Prasad’s servants?
Answer: In Indigo, Rajendra Prasad’s servants mistook Gandhiji and Shukla for ordinary peasants and treated them rudely, refusing them entry and water, assuming they were untouchables seeking an audience with their master.

Q28. Is Saheb happy working at the tea stall? Why / Why not?
Answer: In Lost Spring, Saheb is not happy working at the tea stall because he has lost the freedom and carefree life of rag-picking. The job, though providing some income, binds him to a monotonous routine under a master’s command.

Q29. Who described interview like thumbprints on his windpipe and why?
Answer: In Poets and Pancakes, Umberto Eco described interviews as thumbprints on his windpipe, implying they were intrusive and suffocating, as they often distorted his thoughts or invaded his privacy.

Long-Answer Question (6 marks)

Q30. Justify the title of the lesson, "The Lost Spring".
Answer:
The title Lost Spring by Anees Jung is a poignant metaphor for the lost childhood and opportunities of children like Saheb and Mukesh, trapped in poverty and exploitation. "Spring" symbolizes youth, hope, and growth, but for these children, it is "lost" due to their circumstances. Saheb, a rag-picker, and Mukesh, a bangle-maker, are denied education and freedom, forced into labor to survive. Their dreams—Saheb’s desire for school and Mukesh’s aspiration to be a motor mechanic—are stifled by socio-economic constraints. The title also reflects the broader tragedy of millions of Indian children whose potential is wasted in the cycle of poverty. Jung’s narrative highlights this loss with sensitivity, making the title apt and evocative of the unfulfilled promise of youth.

Vistas Questions

Short-Answer Questions (2x2=4)

Q31. What kind of a person was Evans? Why is he called "Evans the Break"?
Answer: In Evans Tries an O-Level, Evans is a clever, cunning, and congenial prisoner with a knack for escaping. He is called "Evans the Break" because of his multiple successful jailbreaks, showcasing his ability to outsmart authorities.

Q32. How did the Tiger King celebrate his victory over the killing of the hundredth tiger?
Answer: In The Tiger King, the Maharaja celebrated killing the hundredth tiger by planning a grand feast, believing he had fulfilled his vow. However, the tiger was only wounded and later killed by his men, unbeknownst to him.

Long-Answer Question (6 marks)

Q33. Give the character sketch of Dr. Sadao as depicted in the story "The Enemy".
Answer:
Dr. Sadao Hoki in Pearl S. Buck’s The Enemy is a complex character embodying duty, compassion, and inner conflict. As a skilled Japanese surgeon, he is dedicated to his profession, having trained in America and saving lives with precision, even that of an enemy American soldier. His compassion shines when he treats the wounded soldier despite the risk of being labeled a traitor during wartime. However, Sadao is torn between his humanitarian instincts and patriotic duty, as helping the enemy conflicts with his loyalty to Japan. His pragmatic side emerges when he ensures the soldier’s escape to avoid further trouble. Sadao’s internal struggle, courage to act against societal norms, and ultimate humanity make him a nuanced character, reflecting the moral dilemmas of war.

And there you have it—a complete walkthrough of the 2024 CG Board Class 12 English question paper! From decoding passages to crafting letters and analyzing literature, this paper is a brilliant mix of skills to hone your English prowess. By practicing with these questions and answers, you’re not just preparing for exams but also sharpening your ability to think critically and express creatively. Keep reading, writing, and exploring literature to make learning fun and rewarding. Got more question papers or topics to tackle? Let me know, and I’ll be your study buddy again. Best of luck, and keep shining!

Search This Blog

chandrastudyroom